seflood03 seflood03
  • 01-11-2020
  • Mathematics
contestada

Given f ( x ) = sin x and g ( x ) = cos x , show that f ( g ( x ) ) = 0 . Show all your steps.

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pulinburagohain32
pulinburagohain32 pulinburagohain32
  • 01-11-2020

Answer:

f (g (pi/2)=0

Step-by-step explanation:

we have the following functions:

f (x)=sinx

g (x)=cosx

the first thing we must do in the case is composition of functions:

f (g (x)

By making the composition we have:

f (g (x)=sin.cos.(x)

we evaluate for x=pi/2:

f (g (pi/2)=sin.cos(.pi/2 )

=sin (0)

=0

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